PCCN practice questions, PCCN practice tests and PCCN exam prep for the AACN progressive care certification
AACN rewrote the PCCN on February 6, 2024, and a surprising amount of prep material never caught up. The exam went from 125 items in two and a half hours to 150 items in three, and the test plan picked up conditions that were not on it before. If the study guide you are working from still describes the old format, it is describing an exam that no longer exists.
- Unlimited PCCN-style questions across the full AACN test plan
- Built for the current 150-item exam, not the pre-2024 format
- Every answer choice explained, including why the distractors look right
Questions are generated on each exam's current published format, verified September 2026. Plans from $9/mo, cancel anytime.
Quiz generator
Pick an exam & topic ยท answer instantly
Pick a topic for and generate a practice set.
Real exam-pattern questions with answers & explanations.
Generating questions on โฆ
ยท
/ correct
SAT, ACT, LSAT, MCAT, NCLEX, GRE & more. Every topic. Answer a couple to see how it works.
Get the full tutor: unlimited quizzes, doubts solved & your study plan.
Pick a topic, generate a quiz and check your answers, free.
The short answer
The PCCN is AACN's progressive care nursing certification exam, for nurses caring for acutely ill adult patients in step-down, telemetry and intermediate care units. It has 150 items, of which 125 are scored and 25 are unscored pretest questions, with a three-hour time limit. You must answer 82 of the 125 scored items correctly to pass, which is 65.6%. The exam is 80% Clinical Judgment and 20% Professional Caring and Ethical Practice. The fee is $260 for AACN members and $375 for nonmembers, and the 2025 first-time pass rate was 70.10% across 3,321 candidates. Aspirants.ai generates unlimited PCCN-style practice questions across the full test plan, explains every answer choice, and costs from $9 a month.
Last updated July 2026
Work the questions
PCCN practice questions with answers and rationales
Eight progressive care questions across cardiac, pulmonary, endocrine, renal, gastrointestinal and behavioral content, written at the acuity the PCCN actually tests. Read every rationale.
Question 1 · Cardiovascular
A client admitted with new atrial fibrillation has a ventricular rate of 148 and a blood pressure of 88/54, and reports lightheadedness. What should the nurse anticipate first?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. A rate-control agent such as intravenous diltiazem
- C. Starting oral anticoagulation
- D. Defibrillation at 200 joules
Show the answer and explanation Answer
A. Synchronized cardioversion
The decision point in every atrial fibrillation question is whether the client is hemodynamically stable, and this one is not: a systolic of 88 with symptoms of poor perfusion in the setting of a rate near 150 is unstable atrial fibrillation. Unstable means electrical treatment, and because there is an organized rhythm with identifiable R waves, the shock must be synchronized to avoid delivering energy during the vulnerable period of repolarization and inducing ventricular fibrillation. Option B is the correct answer for a stable client and is what candidates choose when they skim past the blood pressure. Option D is the trap that tests the same knowledge from the other side: defibrillation is unsynchronized and is reserved for pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Option C matters for stroke prevention but does nothing about the immediate problem.
Question 2 · Pulmonary
A client with a COPD exacerbation is on 4 liters by nasal cannula with an oxygen saturation of 97%, and is becoming drowsy. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Increase the oxygen to improve the level of consciousness
- B. Titrate the oxygen down toward a target saturation of 88% to 92%
- C. Remove the oxygen entirely and monitor
- D. Place the client flat to improve cerebral perfusion
Show the answer and explanation Answer
B. Titrate the oxygen down toward a target saturation of 88% to 92%
A saturation of 97% is too high for a client with COPD, and the drowsiness is the clue that it is causing harm. Excess oxygen in chronic carbon dioxide retainers worsens hypercapnia, largely by increasing dead space ventilation and shifting the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, and rising carbon dioxide produces exactly this progressive somnolence. The accepted target range in COPD is 88% to 92%, deliberately lower than for other clients. Option A is the instinctive response to a drowsy client and it accelerates carbon dioxide narcosis. Option C overcorrects into dangerous hypoxemia, and hypoxia kills faster than hypercapnia; the goal is titration, not removal. Option D worsens the work of breathing in a client who needs to sit upright. Anticipate an arterial blood gas and consider that noninvasive ventilation may be needed.
Question 3 · Endocrine
A client recovering from diabetic ketoacidosis is on an insulin infusion. The anion gap has closed and the client is ready to eat. What must happen before the infusion is stopped?
- A. Stop the infusion as soon as the first meal is finished
- B. Give subcutaneous insulin and overlap it with the infusion for 1 to 2 hours
- C. Stop the infusion and begin subcutaneous insulin at the next scheduled dose
- D. Stop the infusion once the blood glucose is below 200 mg/dL
Show the answer and explanation Answer
B. Give subcutaneous insulin and overlap it with the infusion for 1 to 2 hours
Intravenous regular insulin has a half-life measured in minutes, so the moment the infusion stops the client has almost no circulating insulin. Subcutaneous insulin takes time to absorb and reach effect, and if you stop one before the other is working there is a window with no insulin on board, which is enough to send a recovering client straight back into ketoacidosis. Overlapping the two for 1 to 2 hours covers that gap, and it is one of the most frequently tested transitions in progressive care. Options A, C and D all create the same uncovered window, and option D adds a second error: a glucose below 200 is a criterion for adding dextrose to the fluids, not for stopping insulin. Resolution of ketoacidosis is judged by closure of the anion gap, not by the glucose alone.
Question 4 · Renal
A client with acute kidney injury has a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L and peaked T waves on the monitor. Which intervention should the nurse expect first?
- A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate orally
- B. Intravenous calcium gluconate
- C. Intravenous regular insulin with dextrose
- D. Urgent hemodialysis
Show the answer and explanation Answer
B. Intravenous calcium gluconate
With electrocardiographic changes present, the immediate threat is not the potassium number itself but the arrhythmia it is about to cause. Calcium gluconate does nothing to lower the potassium; it stabilizes the cardiac membrane and raises the threshold for a lethal rhythm, and it works within minutes. That buys time for everything else. Option C is genuinely part of the treatment and comes next, shifting potassium into the cells within roughly 15 to 30 minutes, but shifting is slower than stabilizing and the heart is the emergency. Option A actually removes potassium from the body but works over hours and is the slowest choice offered. Option D is definitive and likely needed in acute kidney injury, though arranging it takes far longer than the arrhythmia will wait. Learn the sequence as stabilize, then shift, then remove.
Question 5 · Gastrointestinal
A client with known esophageal varices vomits a large volume of bright red blood. Blood pressure is 84/50 and heart rate is 124. After establishing large-bore intravenous access, what should the nurse anticipate?
- A. An intravenous octreotide infusion
- B. A proton pump inhibitor by mouth
- C. Placement of a nasogastric tube for lavage with cold saline
- D. Oral lactulose to reduce ammonia
Show the answer and explanation Answer
A. An intravenous octreotide infusion
Bleeding varices are a portal hypertension problem, so treatment targets portal pressure. Octreotide causes splanchnic vasoconstriction, reduces portal venous inflow and slows the bleeding, and it is started early alongside volume resuscitation while endoscopy is arranged. Option B addresses acid-related bleeding such as peptic ulcer disease and is oral, which is inappropriate for a client actively vomiting blood and at risk of aspiration. Option C is an outdated practice with no benefit in variceal bleeding and carries real risk of trauma to the varices. Option D treats hepatic encephalopathy, which this client may well develop as the digested blood load raises ammonia, but it does nothing for active hemorrhage. The distinction being tested is whether you can separate variceal bleeding from other upper gastrointestinal bleeding, because the drug choice differs.
Question 6 · Multisystem
A client transferred from the emergency department has a temperature of 102.4 F, heart rate 118, respiratory rate 26, blood pressure 92/50 and a lactate of 4.2 mmol/L. Which intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Obtain blood cultures and give broad-spectrum antibiotics with a fluid bolus
- B. Administer acetaminophen for the fever
- C. Repeat the lactate in 6 hours to establish a trend
- D. Start a norepinephrine infusion
Show the answer and explanation Answer
A. Obtain blood cultures and give broad-spectrum antibiotics with a fluid bolus
A lactate above 4 with hypotension and a source of infection is septic shock, and outcomes here are measured against how quickly the bundle is delivered. Cultures are drawn before antibiotics so the organism can still be identified, but drawing them must not delay the drug, and crystalloid resuscitation runs at the same time. Option D is the strongest distractor because vasopressors are certainly part of septic shock management, but they are indicated for hypotension that persists after adequate fluid resuscitation. Giving a vasoconstrictor to a client who is profoundly volume depleted raises the blood pressure reading while perfusion continues to fall. Option B treats a symptom that is not causing harm. Option C is appropriate monitoring in the wrong time frame; a lactate of 4.2 demands treatment now, not a trend line later.
Question 7 · Behavioral
A client admitted 48 hours ago is tremulous, diaphoretic and hypertensive, with a heart rate of 116 and visual hallucinations. The family mentions heavy daily alcohol use. What should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Haloperidol for the hallucinations
- B. Benzodiazepines guided by a CIWA-Ar score
- C. Physical restraints for safety
- D. Intravenous thiamine alone
Show the answer and explanation Answer
B. Benzodiazepines guided by a CIWA-Ar score
The timing and the cluster of findings identify alcohol withdrawal, which typically escalates between 24 and 72 hours and can progress to delirium tremens with a real mortality rate. Benzodiazepines are the treatment because they act on the same GABA receptors that chronic alcohol has been suppressing, so they treat the underlying mechanism rather than the surface symptoms, and symptom-triggered dosing against a CIWA-Ar score gives better outcomes than fixed schedules. Option A is the common wrong answer: antipsychotics lower the seizure threshold in a client already at risk of withdrawal seizures and do nothing for the autonomic instability. Option C escalates agitation and is not a substitute for treatment. Option D is genuinely important, since thiamine prevents Wernicke encephalopathy and should be given before glucose, but on its own it does not treat withdrawal.
Question 8 · Professional Caring and Ethical Practice
A client with capacity refuses a blood transfusion on religious grounds despite a hemoglobin of 6.4 g/dL. The family insists the nurse proceed. What is the most appropriate response?
- A. Give the transfusion because the situation is life threatening
- B. Honor the refusal, document it and notify the provider
- C. Ask the family to sign consent on the client behalf
- D. Wait until the client becomes confused, then transfuse
Show the answer and explanation Answer
B. Honor the refusal, document it and notify the provider
A client with decision-making capacity has the right to refuse any treatment, including one that is life saving, and the severity of the anemia does not create an exception. The nurse role is advocacy: confirm the refusal is informed, make sure the client understands the consequences, document it clearly and involve the provider so that alternatives such as erythropoietin, iron or cell salvage techniques can be discussed. Option A is battery, however well intended. Option C misunderstands surrogate decision making, which applies only when a client lacks capacity, and family members cannot override a competent client wishes. Option D is the most troubling choice because it deliberately waits for capacity to lapse in order to bypass a decision the client already made, which is precisely what advance directives exist to prevent.
These eight are a sample. Inside Aspirants.ai you can generate unlimited PCCN practice questions across the full test plan, with the same depth of explanation on every answer choice.
Generate more questions freeWhat the PCCN exam looks like
The PCCN (Adult) is a computer-based exam administered for AACN Certification Corporation at PSI test centers and by live remote proctoring. You get 150 items in total: 125 that count toward your score and 25 unscored pretest items AACN uses to trial future questions. The pretest items are mixed in with no marking, so there is no way to identify them and no reason to try. The time limit is three hours, about 72 seconds per item, and most candidates finish with time to spare. Passing takes 82 correct answers out of the 125 scored items, which is 65.6%. AACN publishes that cut score rather than hiding it behind a scaled score, and the current value took effect on January 31, 2024. There is no penalty for guessing, so leave nothing blank. The exam runs year round rather than in windows, and you get your pass or fail result before you leave the test center.
- 150 items total: 125 scored plus 25 unscored pretest items
- Three hours, about 72 seconds per item
- Pass with 82 of 125 correct, which is 65.6%
- Cut score effective January 31, 2024, published by AACN
The February 2024 revision that most study guides missed
On February 6, 2024, AACN launched a revised PCCN exam, and the changes are large enough that older prep material is actively misleading. The item count went up from 125 to 150. The time allotted went from two and a half hours to three. The test plan added clinical topics that reflect what progressive care units actually see now, including takotsubo cardiomyopathy, pulmonary fibrosis, diabetes insipidus, traumatic brain injury, compartment syndrome and pandemic management. Check any resource you are about to pay for against those numbers. At the time of writing, well-known prep sites still publish the retired specification of 125 questions in two and a half hours with 68 correct to pass. That is not a small drafting slip: it means the practice tests are the wrong length, the pacing you rehearse is wrong, and the newer test plan topics are missing entirely.
- Item count rose from 125 to 150 on February 6, 2024
- Time went from two and a half hours to three hours
- New topics include takotsubo cardiomyopathy, pulmonary fibrosis and TBI
- Prep sites still showing 125 items in 2.5 hours are describing the retired exam
What is on the PCCN exam: the AACN test plan
AACN splits the PCCN into two categories, and the split is deliberately lopsided. Clinical Judgment is 80% of the exam, about 100 of the 125 scored items, organized by body system: cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, hematology and immunology, gastrointestinal, renal, neurology, musculoskeletal, multisystem and behavioral or psychosocial. Professional Caring and Ethical Practice is the other 20%, about 25 items, built on AACN's Synergy Model. That 20% breaks into two published pieces: advocacy and moral agency, caring practices, response to diversity and facilitation of learning together account for 11%, while collaboration, systems thinking and clinical inquiry account for 9%. The Synergy portion is the part candidates skip, and it is roughly 25 items of learnable material that does not require you to remember a lab value.
- Clinical Judgment: 80% of the exam, about 100 scored items
- Professional Caring and Ethical Practice: 20%, about 25 items
- Advocacy, caring practices, diversity and facilitation of learning: 11%
- Collaboration, systems thinking and clinical inquiry: 9%
PCCN eligibility: the clinical hour requirements
You need a current unencumbered RN or APRN license plus hours in the direct care of acutely ill adult patients. AACN gives you two pathways and you only have to satisfy one. The two-year option asks for 1,750 hours in the previous two years, with 875 of those in the most recent year. The five-year option asks for 2,000 hours in the previous five years. Read the wording carefully, because it is where PCCN and CCRN diverge: the PCCN counts hours caring for acutely ill adults, which is progressive care, step-down, intermediate care, telemetry and many medical-surgical populations, while the CCRN counts hours with acutely and critically ill adults. If your unit sits between the ICU and the floor, the PCCN is the credential written for your patient population. AACN audits a share of applications, so keep a record of your hours you could actually produce on request.
- Two-year path: 1,750 hours in two years, 875 in the most recent year
- Five-year path: 2,000 hours in the previous five years
- Hours must be direct care of acutely ill adult patients
- Applications are audited, so document hours as you accrue them
How hard is the PCCN exam and what is the pass rate?
AACN publishes its exam statistics, which puts the PCCN in the small group of credentials where you can check difficulty against the certifying body instead of a prep vendor's marketing. The 2025 first-time pass rate was 70.10% across 3,321 candidates. So roughly three in ten experienced progressive care nurses fail on the first attempt, which is a higher failure rate than the CCRN's 72.02% and worth knowing before you decide the exam is a formality. Be careful with pass-rate numbers you find elsewhere: prep sites routinely publish figures in the high 70s or 80s that describe their own paying students, not the national candidate pool. Those are marketing statistics, not exam statistics. The reason the exam is harder than nurses expect is breadth. Your unit hands you a narrow slice of the progressive care population, and the test plan covers all of it, so the systems you rarely see are exactly where the misses cluster.
- 2025 first-time pass rate: 70.10% on 3,321 candidates, per AACN
- About three in ten first-time candidates fail
- Slightly harder to pass than the CCRN, which ran 72.02% in 2025
- Pass rates quoted by prep vendors describe their own students, not the exam
PCCN cost, retakes and renewal
The exam fee is $260 for AACN members and $375 for nonmembers. AACN membership costs less than the $115 gap, so joining first and then registering is cheaper than registering as a nonmember, and that is arithmetic every candidate should do before paying. You may sit the PCCN up to four times in any 12-month period, and candidates who do not pass qualify for a discounted retest fee. Certification is recognized for three years. You renew either by retaking the exam or through Renewal by Synergy CERPs, which requires 100 continuing education recognition points across the three-year cycle. On the Direct Care pathway those 100 CERPs break down as a minimum of 60 in Category A, 10 each in Categories B and C, and 20 in the category of your choice. Most hospitals reimburse the exam fee on a pass and pay a certification differential on top, so read your own tuition and certification policy before you pay out of pocket.
- Exam fee: $260 AACN members, $375 nonmembers
- Up to four attempts in any 12-month period, with a discounted retest fee
- Certification lasts three years: retake, or renew with 100 CERPs
- Direct Care renewal: 60 CERPs in Category A, 10 each in B and C, 20 of your choice
How to study for the PCCN when you already work in progressive care
The trap is assuming the exam tests what your unit tests. It does not. Your floor gives you a patient mix, a set of order sets and a physician group whose habits you know by heart. The PCCN tests the entire acutely ill adult population against AACN's test plan, including systems you might go a month without touching. A telemetry nurse who can read a rhythm strip in her sleep still drops points on endocrine emergencies and GI bleeds. So start with questions across every system rather than reading a review book cover to cover. Working questions tells you where the gaps actually are, and they are almost never where you expect. Then review with intent: for every miss, write down what the item was testing and why the answer you chose looked right, because it did look right at the time. Do not skip the Professional Caring 20%. It is about 25 items, it is the section most candidates ignore, and Synergy Model questions are learnable in a way that pathophysiology is not.
- Work questions across every system, not just your unit's usual patients
- Endocrine, GI and renal are the classic blind spots for telemetry nurses
- Review every miss: what was it testing, why did your answer look right
- The Professional Caring 20% is about 25 winnable items if you study the Synergy Model
Compare the options
PCCN vs CCRN: the two AACN adult exams compared
Specifications, cut scores and 2025 first-time pass rates, from AACN's published exam statistics.
| PCCN (Adult) | CCRN (Adult) | |
|---|---|---|
| Patient population | Acutely ill adults: progressive care, step-down, telemetry | Acutely and critically ill adults: ICU |
| Total items | 150 (125 scored plus 25 unscored) | 150 (125 scored plus 25 unscored) |
| Time limit | 3 hours | 3 hours |
| Correct answers to pass | 82 of 125 (65.6%) | 83 of 125 (66.4%) |
| Cut score effective | January 31, 2024 | November 12, 2025 |
| 2025 first-time pass rate | 70.10% | 72.02% |
| 2025 candidates | 3,321 | 17,151 |
| Test plan split | 80% Clinical Judgment, 20% Professional Caring | 80% Clinical Judgment, 20% Professional Caring |
| Fee (member / nonmember) | $260 / $375 | $260 / $375 |
| Clinical hours (two-year path) | 1,750 hours, 875 in the most recent year | 1,750 hours, 875 in the most recent year |
| Certification period | 3 years | 3 years |
Cut scores, pass rates and candidate counts from AACN Certification Corporation exam statistics, July 2026. The PCCN was revised on February 6, 2024, expanding from 125 items in 2.5 hours to 150 items in 3 hours.
One tutor, every exam
PCCN practice questions, on your exam.
Open your exam to see the same doubt solving, practice questions and study plan tuned to its exact pattern.
Honest answers
PCCN practice questions, answered straight.
You must answer 82 of the 125 scored items correctly to pass the PCCN, which is 65.6%. AACN publishes this cut score and the current value took effect on January 31, 2024. The 25 unscored pretest items do not count toward your result either way. There is no penalty for guessing, so answer every question.
The PCCN has 150 items in total: 125 scored questions plus 25 unscored pretest items AACN uses to trial future content. The time limit is three hours, roughly 72 seconds per item. Before February 6, 2024 the exam was 125 items in two and a half hours, so older study guides describe the wrong format.
AACN reported a 70.10% first-time pass rate for the PCCN in 2025 across 3,321 candidates. That means about three in ten first-time candidates failed. This is AACN's own published exam statistic. Higher pass rates quoted by prep companies describe their own paying students rather than the national candidate pool.
Hard enough that roughly 30% of experienced progressive care nurses fail on the first attempt, a slightly higher failure rate than the CCRN. The difficulty is breadth rather than depth: the exam covers the whole acutely ill adult test plan while your unit exposes you to one slice of it. Candidates fail on systems they rarely see.
Not by the numbers. The PCCN pass rate was 70.10% in 2025 against the CCRN's 72.02%, so slightly more candidates fail the PCCN. The exams are the same length, same format and same 80/20 test plan split. What differs is patient population: the PCCN covers acutely ill progressive care patients, the CCRN covers critically ill ICU patients. Pick the one matching your unit, not the one you think is easier.
Both are AACN adult certifications with identical format, fees and renewal rules. The difference is the patient population your hours and your questions come from. The PCCN is for nurses caring for acutely ill adults in progressive care, step-down, intermediate care and telemetry units. The CCRN is for nurses caring for acutely and critically ill adults in intensive care.
The PCCN exam fee is $260 for AACN members and $375 for nonmembers. Because AACN membership costs less than the $115 difference, joining before you register is usually cheaper than paying the nonmember rate. Candidates who do not pass qualify for a discounted retest fee, and many employers reimburse the fee on a pass.
Either 1,750 hours in the direct care of acutely ill adult patients over the previous two years, with 875 in the most recent year, or 2,000 hours over the previous five years. You need to meet only one pathway, and both require a current unencumbered RN or APRN license. AACN audits a portion of applications, so keep your own record of hours.
PCCN certification is recognized for three years. You renew either by retaking the exam or through Renewal by Synergy CERPs, which requires 100 continuing education recognition points across the three-year period. On the Direct Care pathway that means at least 60 CERPs in Category A, 10 each in Categories B and C, and 20 in a category of your choice.
More ways to prepare
Everything a mentor does, in one app.
Doubt solving, unlimited practice questions and a study plan all work together inside Aspirants.ai.
Related reading
Before you commit, read the numbers.
Research-backed guides on scoring, costs and timelines for this exam.
Three in ten first-time candidates fail. Work the questions.
Unlimited PCCN practice questions. Every answer explained.
AACN-style questions across the full test plan, from $9/mo.
No spam. Cancel anytime.